I'm only going to dip into this from a general perspective since this debate can occur in any work place.
Or perhaps is it in some set of regulations issued pursuant to the act under some particular interpretation of the law? Or some "interpretive ruling" by some administrative board, or by some judge? Because there are a lot of rules in that law about how unions are supposed to operate, mostly about union elections and restrictions on usage of union funds, but I found *nothing* in the text of the law requiring unions to fund defenses of admitted criminal activity.
Because this matters. If the supposed "failure to represent" claim isn't actually in the *law text* but is an invention of one of the administrative boards, it's something whose scope can be restricted by the courts. And they would do it in a case like this if Amtrak pushed it.
https://www.nlrb.gov/who-we-are/our-history/1959-landrum-griffin-act
Even though the Railway Labor Act was enacted prior to the "Trilogy" (Wagner, Taft-Hartley, Landrum-Griffin), the Trilogy has jurisdiction over railroad labor relations to the extent that the Act's provisions do not conflict with the Trilogy.
Now a word on the "Boards" under the Act. The (RLA) Act established the National Railroad Adjustent Board, which was divided into four Divisions to adjudicate cases final and binding along craft lines. However, the load of cases exceeded the Board's capacity to make timely adjudications of matters regarding work rules and discipline, so there was enacted legislation establishing Boards of arbitration, known within the industry known as Public Law Boards.
While I am removed from the industry and my second career for now 36 years (third career was as a CPA in private practice from which I retired during '03, first military service), I hope this helps.
OK, Mr. Nerode, I will concede to you that the doctrine of a Union's obligation to represent it's employees was first set forth in the first of the Trilogy - the Wagner Act. However, with much enacted legislation, there are found to be "lukewarm" provisions to accomplish the intent of the legislation's framers. The Landrum-Griffin Act placed "teeth" into the fair representation of employees covered by an Agreement.
https://www.nlrb.gov/who-we-are/our-history/1959-landrum-griffin-act
The basic Cliff Note version is the NRLB basic states that the Union must represent you to the best of their ability:
Right to fair representation
You have a right to be represented by your union fairly, in good faith, and without discrimination.
Your union has the duty to represent all employees - whether members of the union or not-fairly, in good faith, and without discrimination. This duty applies to virtually every action that a union may take in dealing with an employer as your representative, including collective bargaining, handling grievances, and operating exclusive hiring halls. For example, a union which represents you cannot refuse to process a grievance because you have criticized union officials or because you are not a member of the union. But the duty does not ordinarily apply to rights a worker can enforce independently - such as filing a workers' compensation claim - or to internal union affairs - such as the union's right to discipline members for violating its own rules.
It does not say the Union has to win. They do have to represent you...even if you are not a member of their union. This is because the union is the authorized agent of contact with the company. As an example, an engineer has to belong to a union within the company. However, said engineer does NOT necessarily have to belong to the union that represents engineers. If a situation occurred that required representation occurred, the engineers union would HAVE to represent him even though he is not a member of their union. As the agent of contact, they have to see it through even if they find the charge or act immoral or criminal.
Additionally, the union is not their to "protect" or "save" employees. All they basically do is make sure that things occur within the scope of the contract and to attempt to make sure there is consistency based upon the contracts. That's pretty much it. If there is an exception, it is noted. If there are no exceptions, then whatever occurs is up to the company....and the public law board. Even then, people have sued in court and been reinstated (often with back pay when it reaches that level) since the courts (and sometimes the board) tends to look at the specific incident and the gravity of the past incidents.
Based on what is being said about about the laws protecting employees, I think there needs to be a provision that keeps criminals from endangering the public. No woman, child, or man needs to be concerned about the people who are working around them, who are trusted because they work for the company. In this case, the union twice, supported successfully, an employee who is a sexual predator. Question: If Amtrak was required to rehire this person, could they have placed him in a non-public position or were they required to place him in OBS?
It would depend on the ruling of the PLB. If they impose limitations, you would have to follow them. However, if the PLB reinstated them in all capacities, the company would have no choice but to reinstate them in all capacities since this is a binding decision. Once they are back, they must be treated evenly, fairly and with consistency, otherwise the company runs the risk of being cited for retaliation or harassment which is typically a provision of reinstatement.
There are two issues I WOULD like to see this discussion focus on:
1) Hiring/firing policy: Does Amtrak run suitable background checks on all on-board personnel? Does its staffing policy set an appropriately high bar for people responsible for passengers' safety and security? The union's role in this is only one part of a bigger picture.
Define "suitable" background checks. This is becoming an issue as more and more states are starting to back off questioning past criminal behavior. To my knowledge, Amtrak follows Washington DC's guidelines and they have what is known as
Fair Criminal Record Screening Amendment Act of 2014 - LIMS.
The Cliff Notes basically say:
What Can’t Employers Ask About?
Application Form
On an application form, the law prohibits employers from asking about:
• Arrests;
• Criminal accusations (that are not pending or did not result in a conviction); or
• Criminal convictions.
Interview Process
During the interview process before a conditional job offer is made, the employer is
prohibited from asking about arrests, criminal accusations or criminal convictions, and
is not allowed to do a criminal background check.
Conditional Job Offer
An employer may ask you about and look into criminal convictions only after extending
a conditional offer of employment (at no point can an employer ask you about arrests or
criminal accusations). An employer who properly asks you about a criminal conviction
can only withdraw the offer or take a negative action against you for a legitimate business
reason.** If a negative action is taken or the job offer is withdrawn, you have 30 days to
submit a request to the employer for:
• A copy of all interview and hiring-related records created for you by the employer in
consideration of your application, including your criminal records;*** and
After receiving your request, the employer has 30 days to provide you the information.
** A reasonable business purpose will be determined using six factors: (1) Specific duties and responsibilities necessarily
related to the employment; (2) Fitness or ability of the person to perform one or more job duties or responsibilities given
the offense; (3) Time elapsed since the occurrence of the offense; (4) Age of the applicant when the offense occurred;
(5) Frequency and seriousness of the offense; and (6) Information provided by applicant or on his or behalf that indicates
rehabilitation or good conduct since the offense occurred.
More
states are starting to pass laws like this .Connecticut passed a variation (with their own exceptions) earlier this year. The bottom line is having a criminal record no longer automatically disqualifies you for the job. Using the criteria above, you'd have to ask when did he those convictions occur. If they occurred when he was 18 (as an example) and he interviewed when he was 45, you'd probably have a hard time turning someone down based on the elapsed time, particularly if the position he applied for had little relation to the charges.
It may not be easy to just say "convicted felons or criminals need not apply."
Besides, having past convictions doesn't necessarily mean that this is the end result anymore than it means that being a person without a criminal past can't commit a criminal act.